Suppose a nationally-scaled, 30-year, multiple-author, peer-reviewed, non-partisan, public-health-oriented study concluded the following: "Where guns are more widely available, no more of the burglars and intruders are getting shot, but more of the gun-owners' family and friends are."
This is the central finding of The Relationship Between Gun Ownership and Stranger and Nonstranger Firearm Homicide Rates in the United States, 1981–2010. The authors explain, "Our models consistently failed to uncover a robust, statistically significant relationship between gun ownership and stranger firearm homicide rates (Tables 3 and 4). All models, however, showed a positive and significant association between gun ownership and nonstranger firearm homicide rates."
They add: "for each 1 percentage point increase in the gun ownership proxy, [stranger firearm homicide rates stayed the same, whereas] nonstranger firearm homicide rates increased by 1.4%. [Similarly,] a 1 standard deviation increase in gun ownership [13.8%] was associated with a 21.1% increase in the nonstranger firearm homicide rate."
The research is very sound.
Can you refute their findings?